Gee! Oh, eff!

It has been a keladryb-tastic and largely non-internet long weekend. There was Shakespeare, there was goose-baiting, there was an inexplicable Disney singalong. Perhaps I shall catch up on the details of those things in the fullness of time (the Shakespeare, particularly).

However, at the moment, I want to talk about GoF, my re-read of which I finished yesterday. All love to chresimos, for some of this is distilled from conversations with her.

As we all know, the wand Voldemort is using in Chapter 34 is the same one he had the night he killed the Potters. One immediately wonders how this can be; he obviously hasn't been carrying it around with him.

The only answer I can see is that Peter was there that night, grabbed the wand, and hid it away somewhere before Sirius caught up to him. I don't quite see why he would take the trouble to do this, unless he was already trying to plan for a possible resurrection, which is interesting in itself. (Where he stashed the wand is actually not an issue -- Gringotts works. We already know the goblins are willing to deal with animals and make withdrawals from the accounts of people who are supposed to be out of commission (PoA Ch22).)

It's interesting, the things that go on with this wand. Voldemort and Peter appear to share it between them throughout GoF. Peter has it at the beginning of Chapter 32, and he surreptitiously puts it in the pocket of the robes he's going to give to V at the end of the chapter; V takes it out of that pocket when he rises from the cauldron. (Harry doesn't notice Peter putting the wand in the pocket when he picks up the robes, but he must do so.)

Why can't Peter have his own wand? Assuming he did hide V's wand in 1981, he couldn't have hidden his own with it? He couldn't have sent an owl to Ollivander's? This is interesting for me, because it emphasizes the depth of the connection between Peter and V in GoF, but I don't see any logical reason it should be so.

It's Peter, not V, who kills Cedric, but he does it with V's wand. Why? Or perhaps the better question would be, why did JKR want Cedric dead by Peter's hand, and not Voldemort's? Voldie was capable of AK in that state, as Frank Bryce can attest. It's interesting that Dumbledore says Cedric was "murdered by Lord Voldemort" (GoF Ch37), which is not literally true.

Is this important, I wonder? Or is it just that she wanted to keep the "Kill the spare" line? :P

Gee! Oh, eff!

It has been a keladryb-tastic and largely non-internet long weekend. There was Shakespeare, there was goose-baiting, there was an inexplicable Disney singalong. Perhaps I shall catch up on the details of those things in the fullness of time (the Shakespeare, particularly).

However, at the moment, I want to talk about GoF, my re-read of which I finished yesterday. All love to chresimos, for some of this is distilled from conversations with her.

As we all know, the wand Voldemort is using in Chapter 34 is the same one he had the night he killed the Potters. One immediately wonders how this can be; he obviously hasn't been carrying it around with him.

The only answer I can see is that Peter was there that night, grabbed the wand, and hid it away somewhere before Sirius caught up to him. I don't quite see why he would take the trouble to do this, unless he was already trying to plan for a possible resurrection, which is interesting in itself. (Where he stashed the wand is actually not an issue -- Gringotts works. We already know the goblins are willing to deal with animals and make withdrawals from the accounts of people who are supposed to be out of commission (PoA Ch22).)

It's interesting, the things that go on with this wand. Voldemort and Peter appear to share it between them throughout GoF. Peter has it at the beginning of Chapter 32, and he surreptitiously puts it in the pocket of the robes he's going to give to V at the end of the chapter; V takes it out of that pocket when he rises from the cauldron. (Harry doesn't notice Peter putting the wand in the pocket when he picks up the robes, but he must do so.)

Why can't Peter have his own wand? Assuming he did hide V's wand in 1981, he couldn't have hidden his own with it? He couldn't have sent an owl to Ollivander's? This is interesting for me, because it emphasizes the depth of the connection between Peter and V in GoF, but I don't see any logical reason it should be so.

It's Peter, not V, who kills Cedric, but he does it with V's wand. Why? Or perhaps the better question would be, why did JKR want Cedric dead by Peter's hand, and not Voldemort's? Voldie was capable of AK in that state, as Frank Bryce can attest. It's interesting that Dumbledore says Cedric was "murdered by Lord Voldemort" (GoF Ch37), which is not literally true.

Is this important, I wonder? Or is it just that she wanted to keep the "Kill the spare" line? :P